Panacea wrote:Devil's Advocate wrote:
2079? The Book of Mormon was written in the 19th century!
It was
translated in the 19th century.
Uh-huh. Has it ever been published in its original "language" so it can be scrutinised by linguists?
That surely would be the acid test as to whether Joseph Smith translated it or composed it.
Devil's Advocate wrote:I don't think that's what happened. I'm not familiar with the way DNA evidence was presented in the OJ case, but the way it usually goes is that the expert presenting the evidence is asked for the odds that the DNA match is with the wrong person, and they answer something like a million to one.
Which seems at first glance to be rock-solid.
But then you ask: what's the population of the country (or even city) where the crime occured. Compare the answer to the "million to one" odds, and you'll find that your rock-solid DNA evidence could match quite a few people in the area.
That's the ODDS, not actual matches. If I happen to like a unique combination of foods, or some relatively obscure poet, what are the odds I'd find someone in my city that has the same tastes? It might be a million to one, which could mean three people or whatever, but that doesn't mean I'd actually find three people. I might not find anyone or I might find five people. Those are just the odds.
Since only identical twins share the same DNA, if two samples match in a test using a large number of markers, it's pretty conclusive. The more markers in common, the smaller the likelihood that it's someone else.
They don't use the full DNA sequence. But yes, if you use enough markers, you get odds of a million to one of matching the wrong person.
After all, what are the odds that out of a possible three people (or whatever) the odds may predict having that same combination, that it's NOT that person?
Not sure I understand the question.
Devil's Advocate wrote:Factor in the high probability of contamination - it was OJ's home, after all, so his DNA would have been present, whether he was guilty or not.
I think it was the other person's blood on his socks that was the determinant for me. His DNA all over the place is obvious, but how he could get Ronald Goldman's blood on his socks is a question I can't answer.
Okay, that's different - I assumed it was OJ's own DNA they were testing for.
But again, DNA testing the blood doesn't
prove it was Goldman's blood. It may well prove it was not OJ's blood, which would beg the questions: whose is it, and how did it get there.
Wasn't there some talk of evidence having been tampered with? I don't remember. I do recall that the prosecution case was weakened by proof of racism amongst the police who'd worked on the case.